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MODEL TEST - ACADEMIC IELTS
(Time: 90 minutes)
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Section 1

Script:

Staff member: Hello. City Transport Lost Property. How can I help you?
Woman: Oh, hello. Yes, I'm, er, calling about a suitcase I lost yesterday. I don't suppose I'll get it back but I thought I'd try.
Staff member: Well, some people do hand lost items in so you might be lucky. Let's put the details into the computer.
Woman: OK.
Staff member: Right, so, let's start with a description of the suitcase.
Woman: OK, well, it's small, and it's the type you can pull along on wheels.
Staff member: How about the colour?
Woman: Yes - it's black but not exactly plain black - it has some narrow stripes down it, sort of grey. Actually - no, they're white now I think about it.
Staff member: OK, I'll just add that information. Now were there any items inside it?
Woman: Yes. I had a big bunch of keys in there. Luckily my assistant manager has an identical set so she's going out this morning to get some copies made.
Staff member: So, they're for your office?
Woman: That's right. My house keys were in my pocket, thank goodness.
Staff member: Anything else?
Woman: Um, there were a lot of documents, but they're saved on my laptop anyway, so, er, they don't matter so much. But the thing I'm really worried about - I mean,
I haven't even taken it out of the box yet - is a camera I just bought. That's really why I'm calling. I can't believe I've lost it already.
Staff member: I see. Well, let's hope we can find it for you. Was there anything else?
Woman: I don't think so.
Staff member: Any credit cards?
Woman: They were in my handbag. And I had my passport inside my jacket pocket.
 
Staff member: Money, clothing, any personal items?
Woman: Oh, let me think. I had an umbrella. It was black, no blue, but obviously that isn't as important as the other things.
Staff member: No, but it all helps us identify your property and get it back to you. Anyway, I just need to ask you for some basic details about your journey. So it was yesterday, was it?
Woman: That's right. In the afternoon - around 2 pm, maybe 2.30.
Staff member: OK. So that'd be May the 13th.
Woman: Yes. I was heading to Highbury. That's where I live.
Staff member: All right, and you mentioned a passport, I think. So you were coming from the airport. I presume.
Woman: Yes - and I was looking forward to getting home so much - and what with being tired and everything - I think that's why I just forgot about the case.
Staff member: And how were you travelling when you lost your property? I mean, what kind of transport were you using?
Woman: I thought about getting the train, but that would have meant a bus journey as well, and I couldn't be bothered so I decided to take a taxi eventually. That's where I must have left it.
Staff member: Well, that's good news in a way. It's more likely that a driver would have found it and handed it in.
Woman: I hope so.
Staff member: Well, I need your personal details now. Can I have your full name, please?
Woman: Yes. It's Lisa Docherty. I'll spell that for you. It's D-O-C-H-E-R-T-Y.
Staff member: Thank you. And next, if I could have your address - the best address to send you the property if we manage to locate it?
Woman: Sure. It's number 15A River Road - and that's Highbury, as I said.
Staff member: Thank you. Just a moment. There's just one final thing - that's your phone number.
Woman: I guess my mobile would be best. Er, hang on, I can never remember my own number. OK, I've got it. It's 07979605437.
Staff member: Very well. I think that's everything we need at this end. I'll have a look at the data on ...
 

 Complete the form below. Write ONE WORD AND/OR A NUMBER for each answer.
 
City Transport Lost Property Enquiry
Example        
Main item lost:         suitcase
Description of main item: black with thin (1)………… stripes
Other items:    a set of (2) ………… keys
                        some documents
                        a (3) ………… in a box
                        a blue (4) …………
Journey details:      
Date and time:          2.00-2.30 pm on (5)……………
Basic route:               caller travelled from the (6) …………… to Highbury
Mode of travel:          caller thinks she left the suitcase in a (7) ……………
Personal details:     
Name:                      Lisa (8) ……………
Address:                  15A (9) …………… Rd. Highbury
Phone number:         (10) ……………
1.
office 13th May/ 13 May/ thirteenth May/ May 13/ May 13th/ May thirteenth Docherty River white camera 07979605437 umbrella airport taxi


(1)  
(2)  
(3)  
(4)  
(5)  
(6)  
(7)  
(8)  
(9)  
(10)  


Section 2

Script:

Announcer: The Goodwood Museum is currently celebrating some of the most extravagant types of car design in its festival of speed. Here's our reporter Vincent Freed, who's on site, to tell us about some of the cars on display.
Reporter: Well, here I am, standing in front of one of the most prestigious cars ever built, the Duesenberg, a fantastically expensive, luxurious car built in the early part of the 20th century and bearing all the glamorous qualities of the jazz age. How many were there? Well, only 473 Duesenberg J-tvpes were ever built and the model here is one of the rarest. Each had a short 125-inch chassis or framework and the body was always in the form of an open two-seater. The technology behind the car's 6.9-litre engine was extraordinary. It featured capsules of mercury in the engines to absorb vibration and provide an incredibly smooth ride. In fact, these cars offered unparalleled performance ... in an age when 160 kilometres per hour was considered very fast, the Duesenberg promised a top speed of 180 kilometres per hour and could do 140 kilometres per hour in second gear.
Duesenberg, who designed the car, sold it as a frame and engine ... this was typical of the age again and many prestige manufacturers such as Rolls-Royce did exactly the same. Owners able to afford the hefty $9,000 price tag for the basic car would then commission a coachwork company to build a body tailored to their own individual requirements.
The Duesenberg's great attraction for the driver, was its instrument panel which offered all the usual features but also several others including a stop-watch. It was the Duesenberg's technology that lay behind its success as a racing car and they dominated the American racing scene in the 1920s winning the Indianapolis Grand Prix in 1924, '25 and '27.

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.
 
GOODWOOD CAR SHOW
 
Type of car: Dueeenberq J-type
Number made: (1)…………
Type of body: (2)…………   
Engines contained capsules of mercury to ensure a (3)…………   
Top speed: (4)………… per hour.
Sold as a (5)………… and   
Main attraction: (6)…………  
1.
open 2 seater / two-seater/ two seater/2 seater/ open two-seater/ open two seater 473 180 kilometres smooth frame and engine/ frame engine instrument panel/instruments/stop-watch


(1)  
(2)  
(3)  
(4)  
(5)  
(6)  


Script:

 On to another celebrity, the 1922 Leyat Helica. Only 30 of these French propellor cars were built and the model here at Goodwood, which was the fourth to be made, is thought to be the only surviving example still capable of running. The brains behind this car was Marcel Leyat who was an aviation pioneer first and foremost, and the influence of flying is quite apparent in the car. The Levat very strongly resembles a light aircraft with its front propellor but in this case it's minus any wings of course!

It's quite odd to think that this car was whirring through France, just as the Duesenberg was blasting down roads at 160 kilometres per hour across the Atlantic. The Leyats were used regularly in France in the 1920s and were even produced in saloon and van form, as well as two-seater. The Leyat matched its propellor drive with its equally bizarre steering which used the rear rather than the front wheels! But despite looking rather frail, it was a tough machine. In fact, when troops tried to steal it during the Second World War, the car's baffling design was clearly beyond the would-be thieves and it ended up being driven into a tree, breaking the propellor.

And now for the Firebird ...

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS for each answer.

Type of car: Leyat Helica

Number built: (1)…………    
Car looks like a (2)………… without (3)…………              
Steering used the (4)…………          
1.
wings 30 light aircraft/plane rear wheels


(1)  
(2)  
(3)  
(4)  


Section 3

Script:

 Student 1: OK, let’s go over the requirements and see what we have left to do.

Student 2: Let’s see...We have to give the professor a written summary of the information we’ve gathered on our topic: wild bird rescue and rehabilitation.

Student 1: The other written thing we have to turn in is a case study of the rehabilitation of one bird. We’ve have the information on that already.
Student 2: Right. All we have to do is write it up. What about charts and graphs? Do we need to include something like that?
Student 1: I don’t think so. They aren’t really relevant. But we do have to turn in a list of the resources we used.
Student 2: Naturally. What about videos? I heard some of the other students were doing that.
Student 1: Well, I guess that must be optional, because I don’t see it on the requirements list. OK. We should start planning our class presentation since that counts for half the grade.
Student 2: We’ve looked at lots of sources of information, but I think our best source was the interviews we did with the wildlife rehabilitators.
Student 1: Agreed. That and the journal articles. I think we have enough information from those two sources, for the presentation anyhow. The books we looked at weren’t all that helpful.
Student 2: I wonder if we should try to bring in some live birds for the presentation?
Student 1: That would be too difficult, don’t you think? But we have lots of photos of rehabilitated birds. We can show those.

1. Which THREE things are the students required to submit to their professor?
A. a written summary
B. charts and graphs
C. maps
D. a video
E. a list of resources used
F. a case study
Explain:

Script:

 Student 2: Right. OK, I think we should start by talking about how to rescue a bird. Probably first we should help people understand which birds need rescuing.

Student 1: Yeah, that’s really important because a lot of times people see a baby bird that’s all alone, or they find a bird sitting on the ground, and they think it needs to be rescued.

Student 2: And usually those are just baby birds learning to fly, so we should emphasize that people should only attempt to rescue a bird that’s clearly injured.
Student 1: For certain kinds of birds, the rescuer needs to wear protective gloves, because some of those birds have sharp claws and can tear your shirt or, worse, injure your face or some other part of your body.
Student 2: Yes. that’s an important point. OK, next, let’s tell people to put the injured bird in a box, a box with good air circulation. We should let them know that a cage isn’t necessary and a bag, especially a plastic one, could hurt the bird more.
Student 1: Another thing we need to say is that the best way to help the bird stay calm is not by petting it or talking to it, but by leaving it completely alone. Then people should take the bird to the bird rescue center as soon as possible.
Student 2: Right, and we should also point out that when they’re driving the bird to the rescue center, it’s better not to play music on the radio or talk loudly because those things just stress the bird.
Student 1:Yes, it’s better just to speak quietly while you have the bird in the car. OK, we’ve got that part covered. Next, we should talk about what happens at the rescue center.....

Choose the correct answer.
1. Only rescue birds that are ................
A. sitting on the ground
B. all alone
C. obviously hurt
Explain:
2. Protect yourself by wearing ................
A. protective glasses
B. a hat
C. gloves
Explain:
3. Put the bird in a ................
A. bag
B. cage
C. box
Explain:
4. Keep the bird calm by ................
A. leaving it alone
B. talking to it
C. petting it
Explain:
5. When transporting the bird, ................
A. drive very slowly
B. speak quietly
C. play music
Explain:
Section 4

Script:

 Lecturer: We're going to look today at some experiments that have been done on memory in babies and young children.

Our memories, it's true to say, work very differently depending upon whether we are very old, very young or somewhere in the middle. But when exactly do we start to remember things and how much can we recall?

One of the first questions that we might ask is - do babies have any kind of episodic memory ... can they remember
particular events? Obviously, we can't ask them, so how do we find out?
Well, one experiment that's been used has produced some interesting results. It's quite simple and involves a baby, in its cot, a colourful mobile and a piece of string. It works like this. If you suspend the mobile above the cot and connect the baby's foot to it with the string the mobile will move every time the baby kicks. Now you can allow time for the baby to learn what happens and enjoy the activity. Then you remove the mobile for a time and re-introduce it some time from one to fourteen days later.
If you look at this table of results ... at the top two rows ... you can see that what is observed shows that two- month-old babies can remember the trick for up to two days and three-month-old babies for up to a fortnight.
And although babies trained on one mobile will respond only if you use the familiar mobile, if you train them on a variety of colours and designs, they will happily respond to each one in turn.
Now, looking at the third row on the table, you will see that when they learn to speak, babies as young as 21 months demonstrate an ability to remember events which happened several weeks earlier. And by the time they are two, some children's memories will stretch back over six months, though their recall will be random, with little distinction between key events and trivial ones and very few of these memories, if any, will survive into later life. So we can conclude from this that even very tiny babies are capable of grasping and remembering a concept.

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.
 
Question: Can babies remember any (1)………?
 
Experiment with babies: 
Apparatus:     baby in cot    
colourful mobile       
some (2)………                 
Re-introduce mobile between one and (3)……… later.
 
Table showing memory test results
 
Baby’s age
Maximum memory span
2 months
2 days
3 months
(4)………
21 months
several weeks
2 years
(5)………

 

1.
particular events/ events six months/ 6 months string a fortnight/2 weeks/two weeks/ fortnight/14 days 14 days/ a fortnight/2 weeks/two weeks/ fortnight


(1)  
(2)  
(3)  
(4)  
(5)  


Script:

So how is it that young infants can suddenly remember for a considerably longer period of time? Well, one theory accounting for all of this - and this relates to the next question we might ask - is that memory develops with language. Very young children with limited vocabularies are not good at organising their thoughts. Though they may be capable of storing memories, do they have the ability to retrieve them? One expert has suggested an analogy with books on a library shelf. With infants, he says, 'it is as if early books are hard to find because they were acquired before the cataloguing system was developed'.
 
But even older children forget far more quickly than adults do. In another experiment, several six-year-olds, nine-year- olds and adults were shown a staged incident. In other words, they all watched what they thought was a natural sequence of events. The incident went like this ... a lecture which they were listening to was suddenly interrupted by something accidentally overturning, in this case it was a slide projector. To add a third stage and make the recall more demanding, this 'accident' was then followed by an argument. In a memory test the following day, the adults and the nine-year-olds scored an average 70% and the six- year-olds did only slightly worse. In a retest five months later, the pattern was very different. The adults' memory recall hadn't changed but the nine-year-olds' had slipped to less than 60% and the six-year-olds could manage little better than 40% recall. In similar experiments with numbers, digit span is shown to...

Complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS or A NUMBER for each answer.
 
Research questions:        Is memory linked to (1)……… development?
Can babies (2)……… their memories?
 
Experiment with older children:                       
Stages in incident:     a)       lecture taking place
                                  b)       object falls over
                                  c)       (3)………      
 
Table showing memory test results
 
Age
% remembered next day
% remembered after 5 months
Adults 
70%
(4)…………% 
9-year-olds
70%
Less than 60%
6-year-olds
Just under 70%
(5)…………%             
 

 

1.
an argument/ argument 70 retrieve/recall/recover 40 language


(1)  
(2)  
(3)  
(4)  
(5)  


Passage 1
SHEET GLASS MANUFACTURE: THE FLOAT PROCESS
 
Glass, which has been made since the time of the Mesopotamians and Egyptians, is little more than a mixture of sand, soda ash and lime. When heated to about 1500 degrees Celsius (°C) this becomes a molten mass that hardens when slowly cooled. The first successful method for making clear, flat glass involved spinning. This method was very effective as the glass had not touched any surfaces between being soft and becoming hard, so it stayed perfectly unblemished, with a 'fire finish'. However, the process took a long time and was labour intensive.
 
Nevertheless, demand for flat glass was very high and glassmakers across the world were looking for a method of making it continuously. The first continuous ribbon process involved squeezing molten glass through two hot rollers, similar to an old mangle. This allowed glass of virtually any thickness to be made non-stop, but the rollers would leave both sides of the glass marked, and these would then need to be ground and polished. This part of the process rubbed away around 20 per cent of the glass, and the machines were very expensive.
 
The float process for making flat glass was invented by Alistair Pilkington. This process allows the manufacture of clear, tinted and coated glass for buildings, and clear and tinted glass for vehicles. Pilkington had been experimenting with improving the melting process, and in 1952 he had the idea of using a bed of molten metal to form the flat glass, eliminating altogether the need for rollers within the float bath. The metal had to melt at a temperature less than the hardening point of glass (about 600°C), but could net boil at a temperature below the temperature of the molten glass (about 1500°C). The best metal for the job was tin.
 
The rest of the concept relied on gravity, which guaranteed that the surface of the molten metal was perfectly flat and horizontal. Consequently, when pouring molten glass onto the molten tin, the underside of the glass would also be perfectly flat. If the glass were kept hot enough, it would flow over the molten tin until the top surface was also flat, horizontal and perfectly parallel to the bottom surface. Once the glass cooled to 604°C or less it was too hard to mark and could be transported out of the cooling zone by rollers. The glass settled to a thickness of six millimetres because of surface tension interactions between the glass and the tin. By fortunate coincidence, 60 per cent of the flat glass market at that time was for six- millimetre glass.
 
Pilkington built a pilot plant in 1953 and by 1955 he had convinced his company to build a full-scale plant. However, it took 14 months of non-stop production, costing the company £100,000 a month, before the plant produced any usable glass. Furthermore, once they succeeded in making marketable flat glass, the machine was turned off for a service to prepare it for years of continuous production. When it started up again it took another four months to get the process right again. They finally succeeded in 1959 and there are now float plants all over the world, with each able to produce around 1000 tons of glass every day, non-stop for around 15 years.
 
Float plants today make glass of near optical quality. Several processes - melting, refining, homogenising - take place simultaneously in the 2000 tonnes of molten glass in the furnace. They occur in separate zones in a complex glass flow driven by high temperatures. It adds up to a continuous melting process, lasting as long as 50 hours, that delivers glass smoothly and. continuously to the float bath, and from there to a coating zone and finally a heat treatment zone, where stresses formed during cooling are relieved.
 
The principle of float glass is unchanged since the 1950s. However, the product has changed dramatically, from a single thickness of 6.8 mm to a range from sub-millimetre to 25 mm, from a ribbon frequently marred by inclusions and bubbles to almost optical perfection. To ensure the highest quality, inspection takes place at every stage. Occasionally, a bubble is not removed during refining, a sand grain refuses to melt, a tremor in the tin puts ripples into the glass ribbon. Automated on-line inspection does two things. Firstly, it reveals process faults upstream that can be corrected. Inspection technology allows more than 100 million measurements a second to be made across the ribbon, locating flaws the unaided eye would be unable to see. Secondly, it enables computers downstream to steer cutters around flaws.
 
Float glass is sold by the square metre, and at the final stage computers translate customer requirements into patterns of cuts designed to minimise waste. 

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage?
TRUE  if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1. The metal used in the float process had to have specific properties.
A. NOT GIVEN
B. FALSE
C. TRUE
Explain:


2. Pilkington invested some of his own money in his float plant.
A. NOT GIVEN
B. FALSE
C. TRUE
Explain:


3. Pilkington′s first full-scale plant was an instant commercial success.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
C. NOT GIVEN
Explain:


4. The process invented by Pilkington has now been improved.
A. FALSE
B. NOT GIVEN
C. TRUE
Explain:


5. Computers are better than humans at detecting faults in glass.
A. NOT GIVEN
B. FALSE
C. TRUE
Explain:

Complete the table and diagram below. Choose NO MORE THAN TWO WORDS from the passage for each answer.
 
Early methods of producing flat glass
Method
Advantages
Disadvantages
(1)………
• Glass remained (2)…………
• Slow
(3)………
Ribbon
• Could produce glass sheets of varying (4)……
• Non-stop process
• Glass was (5)………
• 20% of glass rubbed away
• Machines were expensive

 

 


1.
thickness spinning labour/ labor intensive glass/ molten glass tin/ molten tin/ metal unblemished/ perfectly unblemished marked rollers


(1)  
(2)  
(3)  
(4)  
(5)  
(6)  
(7)  
(8)  


Passage 2
 AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL IN THE USA

 

A An accident that occurred in the skies over the Grand Canyon in 1956 resulted in the establishment of the Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) to regulate and oversee the operation of aircraft in the skies over the United States, which were becoming quite congested. The resulting structure of air traffic control has greatly increased the safety of flight in the United States, and similar air traffic control procedures are also in place over much of the rest of the world.
 
B Rudimentary air traffic control (ATC) existed well before the Grand Canyon disaster. As early as the 1920s, the earliest air traffic controllers manually guided aircraft in the vicinity of the airports, using lights and flags, while beacons and flashing lights were placed along cross-country routes to establish the earliest airways. However, this purely visual system was useless in bad weather, and, by the 1930s, radio communication was coming into use for ATC. The first region to have something approximating today’s ATC was New York City, with other major metropolitan areas following soon after.
 
C In the 1940s, ATC centres could and did take advantage of the newly developed radar and improved radio communication brought about by the Second World War, but the system remained rudimentary. It was only after the creation of the FAA that full-scale regulation of America’s airspace took place, and this was fortuitous, for the advent of the jet engine suddenly resulted in a large number of very fast planes, reducing pilots’ margin of error and practically demanding some set of rules to keep everyone well separated and operating safely in the air.
 
D Many people think that ATC consists of a row of controllers sitting in front of their radar screens at the nation’s airports, telling arriving and departing traffic what to do. This is a very incomplete part of the picture. The FAA realised that the airspace over the United States would at any time have many different kinds of planes, flying for many different purposes, in a variety of weather conditions, and the same kind of structure was needed to accommodate all of them.
 
E To meet this challenge, the following elements were put into effect. First, ATC extends over virtually the entire United States. In general, from 365m above the ground and higher, the entire country is blanketed by controlled airspace. In certain areas, mainly near airports, controlled airspace extends down to 215m above the ground, and, in the immediate vicinity of an airport, all the way down to the surface. Controlled airspace is that airspace in which FAA regulations apply. Elsewhere, in uncontrolled airspace, pilots are bound by fewer regulations. In this way, the recreational pilot who simply wishes to go flying for a while without all the restrictions imposed by the FAA has only to stay in uncontrolled airspace, below 365m, while the pilot who does want the protection afforded by ATC can easily enter the controlled airspace.
 
F The FAA then recognised two types of operating environments. In good meteorological conditions, flying would be permitted under Visual Flight Rules (VFR), which suggests a strong reliance on visual cues to maintain an acceptable level of safety. Poor visibility necessitated a set of Instrumental Flight Rules (IFR), under which the pilot relied on altitude and navigational information provided by the plane’s instrument panel to fly safely. On a clear day, a pilot in controlled airspace can choose a VFR or IFR flight plan, and the FAA regulations were devised in a way which accommodates both VFR and IFR operations in the same airspace. However, a pilot can only choose to fly IFR if they possess an instrument rating which is above and beyond the basic pilot’s license that must also be held.
 
G Controlled airspace is divided into several different types, designated by letters of the alphabet. Uncontrolled airspace is designated Class F, while controlled airspace below 5,490m above sea level and not in the vicinity of an airport is Class E. All airspace above 5,490m is designated Class A. The reason for the division of Class E and Class A airspace stems from the type of planes operating in them. Generally, Class E airspace is where one finds general aviation aircraft (few of which can climb above 5,490m anyway), and commercial turboprop aircraft. Above 5,490m is the realm of the heavy jets, since jet engines operate more efficiently at higher altitudes. The difference between Class E and A airspace is that in Class A, all operations are IFR, and pilots must be instrument-rated, that is, skilled and licensed in aircraft instrumentation. This is because ATC control of the entire space is essential. Three other types of airspace, Classes D, C and B, govern the vicinity of airports. These correspond roughly to small municipal, medium-sized metropolitan and major metropolitan airports respectively, and encompass an increasingly rigorous set of regulations. For example, all a VFR pilot has to do to enter Class C airspace is establish two-way radio contact with ATC. No explicit permission from ATC to enter is needed, although the pilot must continue to obey all regulations governing VFR flight. To enter Class B airspace, such as on approach to a major metropolitan airport, an explicit ATC clearance is required. The private pilot who cruises without permission into this airspace risks losing their license.

 The reading passage has seven paragraphs, A-G. Choose the correct heading for the paragraphs below.


1. Paragraph A
A. First steps towards ATC
B. An oversimplified view
C. Two coincidental developments
D. Aviation disaster prompts action
E. Setting altitude zones
F. Setting rules to weather conditions
G. Taking off safely
H. Controlling pilots' licences
I. Defining airspace categories
G. Disobeying FAA regulations
Explain:


2. Paragraph C
A. Two coincidental developments
B. First steps towards ATC
C. Controlling pilots' licences
D. Taking off safely
E. An oversimplified view
F. Defining airspace categories
G. Disobeying FAA regulations
H. Aviation disaster prompts action
I. Setting altitude zones
G. Setting rules to weather conditions
Explain:


3. Paragraph D
A. Two coincidental developments
B. Setting altitude zones
C. Defining airspace categories
D. An oversimplified view
E. Controlling pilots' licences
F. First steps towards ATC
G. Taking off safely
H. Disobeying FAA regulations
I. Aviation disaster prompts action
G. Setting rules to weather conditions
Explain:


4. Paragraph E
A. Disobeying FAA regulations
B. An oversimplified view
C. Aviation disaster prompts action
D. Two coincidental developments
E. Setting rules to weather conditions
F. Controlling pilots' licences
G. Taking off safely
H. Setting altitude zones
I. First steps towards ATC
G. Defining airspace categories
Explain:


5. Paragraph F
A. Setting rules to weather conditions
B. Controlling pilots' licences
C. Disobeying FAA regulations
D. Setting altitude zones
E. Aviation disaster prompts action
F. Taking off safely
G. Two coincidental developments
H. Defining airspace categories
I. First steps towards ATC
G. An oversimplified view
Explain:


6. Paragraph G
A. Controlling pilots' licences
B. Setting altitude zones
C. Taking off safely
D. An oversimplified view
E. Disobeying FAA regulations
F. Defining airspace categories
G. Two coincidental developments
H. First steps towards ATC
I. Setting rules to weather conditions
G. Aviation disaster prompts action
Explain:

Do the following statements agree with the information given in the reading passage?
TRUE  if ihe siaiemeni agrees wiih ihe information
FALSE if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1. The FAA was created as a result of the introduction of the jet engine.
A. NOT GIVEN
B. TRUE
C. FALSE
Explain:


2. Air Traffic Control started after the Grand Canyon crash in 1956.
A. FALSE
B. TRUE
C. NOT GIVEN
Explain:


3. Beacons and flashing lights are still used by ATC today.
A. NOT GIVEN
B. TRUE
C. FALSE
Explain:


4. Some improvements were made in radio communication during World War II.
A. NOT GIVEN
B. TRUE
C. FALSE
Explain:


5. Class F airspace is airspace which is below 365m and not near airports.
A. FALSE
B. NOT GIVEN
C. TRUE
Explain:


6. All aircraft in Class E airspace must use IFR.
A. NOT GIVEN
B. FALSE
C. TRUE
Explain:


7. A pilot entering Class C airspace is flying over an average-sized city.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
C. NOT GIVEN
Explain:
Passage 3

THE EFFECTS OF LIGHT ON PLANT AND ANIMAL SPECIES

 
Light is important to organisms for two different reasons. Firstly it is used as a cue for the timing of daily and seasonal rhythms in both plants and animals, and secondly it is used to assist growth in plants.
 
Breeding in most organisms occurs during a part of the year only, and so a reliable cue is needed to trigger breeding behaviour. Day length is an excellent cue, because it provides a perfectly predictable pattern of change within the year. In the temperate zone in spring, temperatures fluctuate greatly from day to day, but day length increases steadily by a predictable amount. The seasonal impact of day length on physiological responses is called photoperiodism, and the amount of experimental evidence for this phenomenon is considerable. For example, some species of birds’ breeding can be induced even in midwinter simply by increasing day length artificially (Wolfson 1964). Other examples of photoperiodism occur in plants. A short-day plant flowers when the day is less than a certain critical length. A long-day plant flowers after a certain critical day length is exceeded. In both cases the critical day length differs from species to species. Plants which flower after a period of vegetative growth, regardless of photoperiod, are known as day-neutral plants.
 
Breeding seasons in animals such as birds have evolved to occupy the part of the year in which offspring have the greatest chances of survival. Before the breeding season begins, food reserves must be built up to support the energy cost of reproduction, and to provide for young birds both when they are in the nest and after fledging. Thus many temperate-zone birds use the increasing day lengths in spring as a cue to begin the nesting cycle, because this is a point when adequate food resources will be assured.
 
The adaptive significance of photoperiodism in plants is also clear. Short-day plants that flower in spring in the temperate zone are adapted to maximising seedling growth during the growing season. Long-day plants are adapted for situations that require fertilization by insects, or a long period of seed ripening. Short-day plants that flower in the autumn in the temperate zone are able to build up food reserves over the growing season and over winter as seeds. Day-neutral plants have an evolutionary advantage when the connection between the favourable period for reproduction and day length is much less certain. For example, desert annuals germinate, flower and seed whenever suitable rainfall occurs, regardless of the day length.
 
The breeding season of some plants can be delayed to extraordinary lengths. Bamboos are perennial grasses that remain in a vegetative state for many years and then suddenly flower, fruit and die (Evans 1976). Every bamboo of the species Chusquea abietifolia on the island of Jamaica flowered, set seed and died during 1884. The next generation of bamboo flowered and died between 1916 and 1918, which suggests a vegetative cycle of about 31 years. The climatic trigger for this flowering cycle is not yet known, but the adaptive significance is clear. The simultaneous production of masses of bamboo seeds (in some cases lying 12 to 15 centimetres deep on the ground) is more than all the seed-eating animals can cope with at the time, so that some seeds escape being eaten and grow up to form the next generation (Evans 1976).
 
The second reason light is important to organisms is that it is essential for photosynthesis. This is the process by which plants use energy from the sun to convert carbon from soil or water into organic material for growth. The rate of photosynthesis in a plant can be measured by calculating the rate of its uptake of carbon. There is a wide range of photosynthetic responses of plants to variations in light intensity. Some plants reach maximal photosynthesis at one-quarter full sunlight, and others, like sugarcane, never reach a maximum, but continue to increase photosynthesis rate as light intensity rises.
 
Plants in general can be divided into two groups: shade-tolerant species and shade-intolerant species. This classification is commonly used in forestry and horticulture. Shade-tolerant plants have lower photosynthetic rates and hence have lower growth rates than those of shade-intolerant species. Plant species become adapted to living in a certain kind of habitat, and in the process evolve a series of characteristics that prevent them from occupying other habitats. Grime (1966) suggests that light may be one of the major components directing these adaptations. For example, eastern hemlock seedlings are shade-tolerant. They can survive in the forest understorey under very low light levels because they have a low photosynthetic rate.


Do the following statements agree with the information given in the Reading Passage?
TRUE   if the statement agrees with the information
FALSE  if the statement contradicts the information
NOT GIVEN if there is no information on this

1. There is plenty of scientific evidence to support photoperiodism.
A. False
B. Not given
C. True
Explain:


2. Some types of bird can be encouraged to breed out of season.
A. False
B. Not given
C. True
Explain:


3. Photoperiodism is restricted to certain geographic areas.
A. True
B. Not given
C. False
Explain:


4. Desert annuals are examples of long-day plants.
A. Not given
B. True
C. False
Explain:


5. Bamboos flower several times during their life cycle.
A. True
B. Not given
C. False
Explain:


6. Scientists have yet to determine the cue for Chusquea abietifolia′s seasonal rhythm.
A. True
B. False
C. Not given
Explain:


7. Eastern hemlock is a fast-growing plant.
A. False
B. True
C. Not given
Explain:

Choose NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS from the passage for each answer.

1.
sugarcane food/ food resources/ adequate food/ adequate food resources rainfall/ suitable rainfall classification day-neutral/ day-neutral plants temperatures insects/ fertilization by insects


Day length is a useful cue for breeding in areas where   are unpredictable.

Plants which do not respond to light levels are referred to as  .

Birds in temperate climates associate longer days with nesting and the availability of  .

Plants that flower when days are long often depend on   to help them reproduce.

Desert annuals respond to   as a signal for reproduction.

There is no limit to the photosynthetic rate in plants such as  .

Tolerance to shade is one criterion for the   of plants in forestry and horticulture.


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